Jehovah's Witnesses Re-Generated As A Nation From Apostasy!
Jesus said to his first century disciples,
"And, Look! I am with you all the days until the conclusion of the system of things." -- Matthew 28:20
Now, according to the Watchtower Society and 6 million Jehovah's Witnesses, Jesus "has been with" so-called "christians" for the past 2,000 years, right up till Armageddon. But are we truly considering what such a viewpoint then, would inevitably mean?
Adopting that viewpoint then, would mean the following: It would mean that Jesus "has been with" his so-called followers, all through the many cruelties that religion has perpetrated upon other men, making them slaves, stealing their wealth and the massacre countless civilizations as being the "infidels" and "enemies" of Christ. Mankind's sanguinary wars, the Catholic Inquisition Years, and the bloody years of warfare down thru the centuries, all done under the banner of and in the name of “Christianity.”
So do we really want to say that Jesus has "been with" so-called christians, those who profess "christianity" all down thru the ages, since the first century till our day? No, this would not make good sense to say such. However, it would make more sense to say that Jesus, based upon what he taught his disciples at Luke 19:11-27 when he gave them the illustration of the "minas" that he really came to "settle accounts" with them in the year of 70 c.e, when he "slaughtered" all those who "hated" him and "did not want him to become king over them." This "slaughter" proved to the complete destruction of the natural nation of Israel, where as promised, they received from the hand of Jesus, the "baptism of fire" of complete destruction. -- Matthew 3:11, 12; Luke 19:14, 27
Therefore this would mean that Jesus kept his promise and that he would be "with you [first century christians] all the days until the conclusion of the system of things," WHICH OCCURRED IN 70 C.E. So then, the first century "anointed" followers of his, could rightly expect that Jesus would be with them right up to the "conclusion of the [Jewish] system of things," in 70 c.e. as he promised. -- Matthew 28:20
This would mean that Jesus Christ could have made his Second "Parousia" or Coming as he promised, in the year of 70 c.e. Of course, most people think that the battle of Armageddon is fought at the time of Jesus' second coming. Jehovah's Witnesses are taught Jesus' Second "Parousia" [or so-called "presence"] began in 1914, but his Second "Coming" occurs at Armageddon. So it becomes a Two (2) Stage Coming of sorts to Jehovah's Witnesses...something that has confused many who try to understand the teachings of the Watchtower Society.
(For more detailed information on Jesus' Second "Parousia" occurring in 70 c.e. see the article entitled: The Second "Parousia" of Christ -- Reexamined)
Therefore Jehovah Witnesses, because of what they have been taught, have great difficulty in seeing the possibility of Jesus coming in the first century, actually coming in 70 c.e., and understanding that this second coming of Jesus in 70 c.e. has nothing...nothing to do with Jesus bringing the destructive day of Armageddon upon all nations that prove to be disobedient to God, at the complete end of mankind's wicked rulership on earth.
However, Paul showed that the "second coming" of Jesus, where he comes and "receives" home his disciples actually has nothing to do with Jesus bringing the Great Destructive Day of Armageddon itself, upon all wicked mankind itself. Paul pointed this out at 1 Corinthians 15:23, 24 where he stated, referring to the different times for God to perform the resurrection,
"But each one in his own rank; Christ the firstfruits, afterward those who belong to the Christ during his presence [parousia]. Next, the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power." -- 1 Corinthians 15:23, 24
Did you notice above that Paul refers to three (3) different resurrections that are to occur. First he refers to the resurrection of Jesus, which occurred just a short time after Jesus' death, on Nisan 16. Then he states that "all those who belong to christ" then receive their resurrection, that is, first century "anointed" ones, that are resurrected to heavenly life. Now notice this point very carefully. Paul said this occurred at Jesus' "PAROUSIA", or second coming. Yes, this heavenly resurrection then, we should expect to occur at Jesus "parousia" or second coming, wherein ALL, and that is all of christ's "anointed" disciples were to be resurrected, together to heavenly life. Paul spoke of this situation by saying:
"For this is what we tell you by Jehovah's word that we the living who survive to the presence [parousia] of the Lord shall in no way precede those who have fallen asleep in death; because the Lord himself will descend from heaven and with a commanding call, with an archangel's voice and with God's trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first. Afterward we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught away in clouds to meet the Lord in the air; and thus we shall always be with the Lord." -- 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17
And so from reading the above, we could see how all of this could be quite possible, plausible even, when we look at the matter as having happened, that the resurrection for all "anointed" first century ones, in the year of 70 c.e. It would all make sense. But even though Jesus had his second "coming" or "parousia" in the year of 70 c.e., it still would not have anything to do with his bringing the Destructive Day of Armageddon. In fact, it would be at this time, just after the time of the destructions of mankind's governments at Armageddon, that Jesus would perform the final resurrection...an earthly resurrection of those who are dead and are destined to receive life upon earth. Yes, this final resurrection, would be an earthly resurrection itself. This would be the resurrection that Paul said be a resurrection to life for the "righteous and the unrighteous" ones upon earth. So then, this is the promised EARTHLY resurrection that God promised mankind. -- Acts 24:15; John 5:28, 29
This is how Paul describes it:
"Next, the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power." -- 1 Corinthians 15:24
Yes, the next time of a resurrection, Paul shows, then would be "at the end." Paul said, "Next, the end" ... the end when Jesus "hands over the kingdom" just after he destroys "all government and all authority and power." It will be at this time, that Jesus resurrects humans from the dead and empties the graves of all mankind. But the key point we are trying to make here, is that, "the end" that Paul refers to, then is not to be confused with his second "parousia" or second "coming" which is when Jesus resurrects his "anointed" followers to heavenly life. No, this particular time, then, is quite different from the "end," when the destruction of the governments of nations, occurs at Armageddon. -- Revelation 16:16
So we are talking about two distinctly different things, the time when Jesus resurrects his "anointed" disciples and the time when Jesus brings the "end" of "all governments" in opposition to Jehovah. Theses are two different time periods and should be understood as such.
Therefore, if we began to consider things in this light, we could begin to see how Jesus Christ could have returned indeed, in the year of 70 c.e. and resurrected his "anointed" first century followers to heavenly life, and not have any conflict with Jesus' Final act of bringing to an "end" all the governments of mankind that are in opposition to Jehovah God, at the Great War of Armageddon, which occurs … “at the end”, at the end, Paul said. Therefore, understanding matters this way, finally, we can see how all of this could work together, and make perfect sense.
As we look back, since the year of 70 c.e., we are reminded of all of the atrocities that have occurred since that time. And many of them in the name of religion and christianity. And we remember that this bloodshed and mayhem of mankind brutalizing others of the human family, continued, yes continued some 1800 years later, right up to the time that the Watchtower Society said that Pastor Russell supposedly "escaped" APOSTATE Christendom...yes Christendom the most reprehensible part of Babylon The Great as they claim. Yes, they say that CT Russell, escaped "Babylon," or Christendom, as an "anointed" person. This is what we were taught, isn't it? – Ecclesiastes 8:9; Revelation 18:4
Yes, they teach that Pastor Russell was "anointed" right in the midst of Babylon the Great, the world empire of false religion, do they not? It is taught that CT Russell was a member of the churches of christendom when he received his "anointing." And not only him, but many others who later became followers of CT Russell, they too were supposedly "anointed" right within Babylon The Great, churches of Christendom too, before they joined CT Russell's movement. Russell is even taught his followers during his day, to "get out of her," Babylon The Great, and for "anointed" ones to join his movement.
But in such a teaching, there is a flaw.
Think: If Christendom was completely "apostate" as we know they were teaching such blasphemous things like the trinity doctrine, a “burning hell” and other completely "apostate" teachings, then how could Jehovah and Jesus go into such a FILTHY ENVIRONMENT itself, and "anoint" someone, we must ask? Now mind you, they were teaching the blasphemous doctrine of "trinity", "hellfire" and other blasphemous teachings, which would make the entire people of christendom and its religions, completely filthy in God's eyes. They would have to be viewed by Jehovah God, completely at that time as being yes, APOSTATE. And there would always be the question of whether apostate Christendom, who claims that Jesus is God Almighty Himself, could ever be permitted into a covenantal relationship with Jehovah, since they show outright hatred for God's Name and actually deny His very existence and His unique claim to desire "exclusive devotion" for Himself, and by way of their blasphemous teachings for centuries on end. So then, how could CT Russell become "anointed" in such a filthy, apostate environment, when he was a member of the churches of Christendom? How? -- Hebrews 6:4-6; Hebrews 10:26-29
So then, we need to separate the idea in our minds of the nation of "Israel" and how they became such in its initial stage, from their actually becoming QUALIFIED for an "anointing", which the bible shows is to be at a much, later time. However, when the actual “anointing” occurs for the nation of Israel, itself, then they can rightfully be said to have become "christians" per say. Nevertheless, as has been shown above, the prophecy of Joel 2:28, 29 shows, this would by necessity, have to become a future event, in the last days, when such would occur for the nation of "Israel." Bible prophecy indicates that “Israel,” was to first fall into "apostasy,” be severely disciplined by God’s Hand, and suffer great hardship, long before they were to receive or truly QUALIFY for their future "anointing" before God. Bible prophecy shows this.
(To Be Continued)